To understand and referring to the model (segment 'a' to point 'b', and occlusion1 and occlusion2), if occlusion 2
(downstream lesion) is stented, that will increase collateral flow
from occlusion1, and if occlusion1 is stented, that will regress collateral flow!! If that is true, my father's collaterals will be sufficient if there is no blockage down stream. Would that be correct? .