If you are essentially celibate because you are in a marriage with an asexual partner, can you lose
the ability to achieve erection after an extended period of time, (as
in my case of apprx. 16 months), due to psychosomatic influences? I guess I know I will never again have sex with this woman but cannot see myself leaving the relationship due to financial and other considerations. I still attempt masturbation but cannot achieve a full erection.