Folks,
Just a point of clarification when considering the following statement from one of the doctors in the Expert Forum:
"When a woman is infected, the average risk of transmission to her male partners has been calculated at once for every 2,000 episodes of unprotected vaginal sex."
Does this mean that an average person would need to have vaginal sex with an infected person 2,000 times before transmission would likely occur, or does mean your chances are 1/2,000 (0.0005%)?