Since there is no way to know for sure how long
I've had this virus, I'm just trying to
err on the side of caution with regards to
my infectivity of a discordant partner and assuming it's new. (Newly discovered, at least) I'd just read that this virus is much more active in the first 6 months -2 years, and I wondered to what degree? Does a 4%/year potentially jump to a 20%/year chance female to male if its the first year of infection?