Mri scan results explained
Common Questions and Answers about Mri scan results explained
mri-scan
Hi,
I had a MRI scan a couple of days ago but no one has really explained to me what has happened, I will be reviewed by the spinal team as an outpatient. I have posted the results below and I would really appreciate if someone could explain in non medical terms what is happening.
Here's some background info. I have had a recurring bad back for the past 10 years, but at the side of my back. Usually every six months for a couple of weeks at a time then back to normal.
1)grossly heterogenous radiotracer distribution with increased uptake consistent with toxic multinodular goiter
2) a focal area of decreased radiotracer within the midpole of right lobe (known 1x1.5x1.4 cm nodule)
3) large focus of mixed radiotracer uptake within the left thyroid lobe (known 5.5cm nodule)
does this require biopsy, surgery, radioactive iodine treatment or medications
tsh 0.
My neuro is sent the written report of the MRI results. When I see my neuro for follow up, I bring the MRI disc. He looks at it then, and reviews it with me. I only get a copy of the radiologists report if I ask for it.
Sorry you are feeling stressed out. If you want to share more of your story, perhaps others on this site can offer suggestions/support of how to move forward in getting help.
I'm 21 weeks pregnant, I didn't have my 1st scan until I was 18 weeks where I discovered I was carrying twins, unfortunately I lost one of the babys around 11 weeks.
I had a 3T MRI of the brain. The report is as follows:
Findings: There are no areas of restricted diffusion, no acute infarction. Small areas of high signal are noted peripherally near the gray-white junction in the frontal and parietal lobes, felt to be unchanged but better seen on this 3 Telsa examination. No new lesion, mass or mass effect.
Ask your Dr if an MRA would be best and then depending on those results, possibly an MRI Cine. There is much speculation at this point but enough to indicate the need for further testing. I remember the first results I read indicated a possible aneurysm in a very dangerous location ... etc. Turns out its Chiari. CT results are often preliminary findings. Hopefully you will get some much needed good news soon.
I just returned from the neurologist where he explained my 14 yr old daughter's results. However, I still don't understand the results. My daughter is seeing the dr due to headaches, dizziness, and vomiting. She had 3 abnormalities and I'm not sure how significant this is. Here are the results: 1. Pineal fossa 11mm probable pineal cyst. Pineocytoma cannot be excluded. 2. Mild superior convexity of the midline pituitary gland. 3.
I also take zimovane to help me sleep which i find very hard to do,My problem is why am i not getting any better as i feel worse than ever.i have had an mri scan done on my thoracic spine and these are the results
MRI THORACIC SPINE
STANDARD PROTOCAL
VERTABRAL BODY ALIGNMENT IS SATISFACTORY.BONE MARROW SIGNAL NORMAL.SPINAL CORD SIGNAL AND POSITION IS NORMAL.THERE IS LOSS OF NORMAL DISK SIGNAL FROM THE UPPER THORACIC DISKS CONSISTENT WITH EARLY DISK DEGENERATION.
I can understand your confusion. Both MRI and CT scan can be used to screen for an aneurysm/dilatation. MRI is a safer option as it does not expose a patient to radiation, but the quality of image is poor as compared to CT scan (which exposes a patient to radiation). In case of doubt, CT scan imaging is done. So, yes, it is possible that a MRI is unable to catch a small aneurysm or gives a false image of an aneurysm/dilatation.
I am 27 years old and a recent MRI scan has indicated that i have a left ovarian dermoid cyst. (approx 5cm) To my great surprise (and fear), the scan also indicated that I have a "unicornuate uterus in the anterverted position". The junctional zone is unremarkable. What exacly does this mean and what are the implecations on my fertiltiy? I am extremely stressed and concerned and my doctor has not at all been sensitive or explained anything to me.
I had a regulary scheduled appointment yesterday with my Internal Medicine Doctor. He asked me if I had ever had a spinal MRI.
I told him no and he said I really needed to have one. (he knows my neurological history and has seen my brain MRIs.
I had a total spine MRI at 8:00 this morning. The Tech told me that they don't use the dye for this scan unless she sees something. After the scan.
Can someone please explain the following MRI report from the Neurologist to my GP
This patients MRI brain scan shows some diffuse high T2 and flare signals within the Pons leaving a central rim of normality around the outside, I have revieved the MRI myself and is almost certainly vascular disease
thanks if anyone can explain me this in simple laymans terms
Couldn't wait for MRI results so I managed to get a copy of the report from medical records before seeing my neuro ( Dec 10). Neuro seemed so sure it would show MS lesions, but looks pretty normal. Only one area of enhancement that is compatible with developmental venous anomaly.
So now what?? Tingling is improved on its own and now comes and goes. I had a really bad day last week where it felt like both arms were packed in ice. Cold numb and very achy.
My blood work, cT scan, and carotid artery ultrasound are all normal. I had an MRI the other day- not contrast. The results appear to be normal except for " Incidental note is amde of an extra-axial appox. 3 mm T1 hyperintense focus in the posterior left occipital region consistant with lipoma".
What does that mean and where do I go from here.
He has a L4 compression fracture and the L4 is concaved. We have had an MRI and a CT scan and some blood work up but we dont have a reason for the fracture. All of the dr.s that he has seen all say the same thing."Strange". They dont understand how it broke picking up 50 lbs. Any ideas?
P.S if cancer was the cause it would have shown up on the MRI or the CT wouldnt it?
I a cat scan done because of dizziness and then a MRI was done because of something abnormal on the cat scan. The impression of the MRI said there are multiple areas of abnormal signal intensity in the cerebral white matter. A demyelination process would be a strong consideraton. Nonspecific nonacute microvascular changes with a vasculitis would also be in the differential diagnosis. Can you please explain what this means? My dr.
Hi, last year I had an MRI scan. I was having it as the Dr was looking to see if I had an AVM on the brain, I get a lot of headaches and have an AVM on my right forearm. When I went to see the Dr he told me my results, he said there is a malformation there but it isnt an AVM. He then pointed to the temporal lobes and said they are low. I should of asked him what that meant, but I never ask questions when Im there, I just say to myself I should of asked this and I should of asked that.
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