So that would leave 2,121 white men who contracted the virus through other means that M2M contact
in 2009. Assuming that at least some of those remaining
males contracted the disease via IV drug use....could it be accurately assumed that less than 1500 white men a year are contracting the virus through heterosexual contact?
Can that even be close to right? Seems way to low with all the high risk behavior white males are involved in nationwide?
I have no clue...